We are trying to separate two of our business units from sharing a server to their own servers this week. When we do this, we are also tackling the issue of not having enough IP addresses. Here is a little background on what we have, then onto what we are trying to accomplish:

Cisco 1721 Router (managed by WAN provider)
connects to
Dell PowerConnect 3448 Stack (4 switches, managed as a single)
connects to
Two NetWare 6.0 SP5 servers, both running DHCP

On our PowerConnect, we have two VLANs setup (1 is the primary, then we also have VLAN 2). We have a server, let's call it NTW01, serving DHCP with a range of We have a second server, NTW02, that we would like to have serving up NTW02 is currently on the .22.x network and functions just fine. When it wants to reach NTW01 it goes through the switches, into the router, which then knows to point it back to the local network for .12.x.

I know there are probably questions that might need to be answered to successfully answer this question, but right now I can't think of them. How can we make it so any computer that is on a port of the switch that is designated as VLAN 2 gets an IP address from NTW02, but any computer on VLAN 1 gets an IP from NTW01?

Dell is telling us that this is not possible and our WAN provider just can't seem to explain it to me well enough to make Dell believe that we should be able to do it. I think it should be possible because when I do an IPTRACE from NTW02 to NTW01, I see it go to the router ( and then it finds the server, it does not go directly there so the devices are "separated" by the router.

Ryan Sinnwell