If I set my workstation to obtain an IP address automatically, get an
address from my ISP or local DHCP server, then make a VPN
connection to a remote server, will I get assigned another IP address
the remote server as the workstations local to it do when they log in?

From what I see in my testing so far, the answer is "no." I'd like a
little understanding as to why. I tried my normal VPN connection,
means no login; I tried checking off "login to Netware"; I tried
checking off both "login to Netware" and "run scripts" - none of these

things changed the behavior I'm interested in here.

The immediate issue was trying to connect to a remote workstation
I was at home - the machine wasn't responding to my pcAnywhere
so we thought if we both got onto the common server via the VPN we
be able to see each other since we are both able to see private-side
workstations already.

Thanks in advance for any light anyone can shed on this for me and
please don't be too technical in your explanations.